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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 22.06.2025 10:07

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What made you feel disgusted today?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What is the reason behind people believing in the concept of causation, even though it cannot be proven or deemed necessary for everything to exist?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.